That some can discern what Ueshiba had -- even if you and many others can't -- takes those individuals beyond the need to assume anything.
Which "some", and which "individuals"? My impression is that you are just setting up one vague question-begging fallacy to buttress another, despite the fact that the prior one has been called out. Who exactly, that actually experienced what Ueshiba had, and therefore has a legitimate basis for comparison, is discerning it in whom? If not you, why are you making this claim, and on whose behalf are you making it?